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  Tuesday, 03 January 2023
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While eGFR is a better ratio to assess kidney health, it’s a formula adjusting for age, race, gender and creatinine… so I guess a follow up to my previous post/question would be what would explain
1) creatinine levels being normal in lab results but a kidney being nonetheless damaged? I
2) foamy urine despite lab results indicating no protein in urine (despite beer suds’ like presence of foam in urine).

In a scenario where omnipaque contrast harmed the kidneys and symptoms began weeks/months after (urine changes, tingling/spasms, pain around kidney area, fatigue), how could lab results indicate normal creatinine levels & no presence of urine (despite clear physical evidence otherwise) if one’s kidneys are damaged? Could it be that for example if the damage was done to either the tissue, renal cortex, renal capsule or the renal medulla would explain that?

Or, if this would be in a forty-something white male with no hypertension, no diabetes, not overweight - could a healthy profile as such explain the lab results even if symptoms exist, ie does creatinine capture hypertension / diabetes inputs or is it 100% unrelated to those and really based on kidney health?

I’d appreciate any one being able to at least chime in on the technical / medical feasibility thereof.

I acknowledge this isn’t common and would be easy to discount as anxiety but the symptoms are real.

I literally feel blood tingling around calf muscle, in feet, arms etc… but the urine changes are most obvious signs.

Thanks.
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